I have read all replies on this topic but one matter stays unaddressed. I have a massive archive of books of about 30 years. What will happen to text if type 1 fonts are replaced by openfonts. Will text reflow? Because it ill be a massive pain to check thousands of pages to see if text has reflown. I can imagine it will reflow because of added glyphs, changed kerning etc. Anyone any idea? Thanks in advance!
This is a user-to-user forum, and while Adobe staffers may occasionally review these, most all the folks here can't answer for Adobe Systems. In short, We can't answer for them; we can only offer help for the options you have to consider.
I appreciate your anger, honestly. And if you go through the various answers provided here, you may find a course of action that works for you. But nobody here can speak for Adobe Systems.
It's what we've got, and I hope this forum can help you past the problem.
You have a few choices:
Not speaking for Adobe--most of us are just users. Just giving my opinion as to the logical options.
Just noting that I am finding this change frustrating in that I am working on a system that has never had T1 fonts installed, yet I have documents that have font specs that stubbornly ID as T1 even though I've done everything to remap them to OTF. Sometimes it's split: I have styles using Stone Sans Semibold that are happy, and others that will not "convert" even when the text is cleared and re-styled.
I don't object to T1 fonts going away, but the software seems to.
Seems like the InDesign Find/Replace Font dialog is ambiguous in its terminology. Here’s the default ID font Myriad Pro, which is listed as OpenType Type 1 by Find/Replace Font. While FontAgent font manager lists it and all of my OpenType fonts as OpenType with PostScript outline: